NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

NRNP 6531 Advanced Practice Care Adult across Life-Week 6 Midterm Exam

NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam Question 1                      1 pts

The Consensus Model is based on 4 elements known as the LACE regulatory model. All the following are components of that regulatory model except:

Group of answer choices

Licensure

Accreditation

Certification

Empanelment

 

Question 2                       1 pts

To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?

Group of answer choices

Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists

Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of discharge

Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge

Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and caregivers

 

Question 5                             1 pts

The National Standards require a minimum of how many hours of direct patient care for APRNs?

Group of answer choices

400 hours

500 hours

600 Hours

700 hours

NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

 

Question 6                              1 pts

Angie is a new NP who just finished her FNP program. She is having a difficult time finding an FNP position in the rural area where she lives. So, since she was an ER nurse prior to her graduate program she decides to go back to the ER as an APRN. Does she meet the competency requirements for such a position? NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

Group of answer choices

Yes

No

Question 7                    1 pts

The Consensus Model identifies 3 core courses that all ANPs must take. All the following are Advanced core courses except:

Group of answer choices

Public Health

Physiology

Pharmacology

Physical Assessment

 

Question 91 pts

What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of translational research?

Group of answer choices

Adoption of interventions and clinical practices into routine clinical care

Determination of the basis of disease and various treatment options

Examination of safety and effectiveness of various interventions

Exploration of fundamental mechanisms of biology, disease, or behavior

 

Question 10                  1 pts

What is the purpose of Level II research?

Group of answer choices

To define characteristics of interest of groups of patients

To demonstrate the effectiveness of an intervention or treatment

To describe relationships among characteristics or variables

To evaluate the nature of relationships between two variables

NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

 

Question 111 pts

When assisting with a skin biopsy of a patient suspected of having bullous pemphigoid (BP) lesions, what will the practitioner do?

Group of answer choices

Avoid contact with the infected lesions.

Elicit a positive Nikolsky sign to confirm the diagnosis.

Perform direct immunofluorescence microscopy.

Prevent spread of the lesions to other areas of the skin.

NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

 

Question 12                   1 pts

All of the following are gram- positive bacteria than can cause cellulitis, except:

Group of answer choices

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococci

Staphylococci

Salmonella

Question 131 pts

In reviewing the Total Percentage of Body surface area for adult burn patients each, leg, arm and head are noted evaluated at 9%.

Group of answer choices

True

False

 

Question 141 pts

The most common type of melanoma in African Americans and Asians is:

Group of answer choices

Basal Cell carcinoma

Actinic Keratosis

Acral Lentiginous Melanoma

Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

 

Question 151 pts

A patient has acne and the provider notes lesions on half of the face, some nodules, and two scarred areas. Which treatment will be prescribed?

Group of answer choices

Oral clindamycin for 6 to 8 weeks

Oral isotretinoin

Topical benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin

Topical erythromycin

 

Question 151 pts

A patient has acne and the provider notes lesions on half of the face, some nodules, and two scarred areas. Which treatment will be prescribed?

Group of answer choices

Oral clindamycin for 6 to 8 weeks

Oral isotretinoin

Topical benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin

Topical erythromycin

 

Question 161 pts

A patient is newly diagnosed with bullous pemphigoid and has moderate to severe itching. The provider orders a topical corticosteroid will discuss which potential complication with this patient?

Group of answer choices

Bone marrow suppression

Developing systemic lesions

Secondary infection

Spread of disease to others

 

Question 171 pts

Chickenpox and shingles are cause by the different viruses.

Group of answer choices

True

False

 

 

Question 181 pts

A patient has actinic keratosis and the provider elects to use cryosurgery to remove the lesions. How will the provider administer this procedure?

Group of answer choices

Applying one or two freeze-thaw cycles to each lesion

Applying two or more freeze-thaw cycles to each lesion

Applying until the freeze spreads laterally 1 mm from the lesion edges

Applying until the freeze spreads laterally 4 mm from the lesion edges

 

Question 191 pts

A female patient is diagnosed with hidradenitis suppurativa and has multiple areas of swelling, pain, and erythema, along with several abscesses in the right femoral area. When counseling the patient about this disorder, the practitioner will include which information?

Group of answer choices

Antibiotic therapy is effective in clearing up the lesions.

It is often progressive with relapses and permanent scarring.

The condition is precipitated by depilatories and deodorants.

The lesions are infective, and the disease may be transmitted to others.

 

Question 201 pts

A flat nonpalpable lesion less than 1 cm in diameter identifies which type of primary skin lesion:

Group of answer choices

Papule

Macule

Plague

Bullae

 

Question 211 pts

Patty comes to the clinic with these soft fatty cystic lesions on her neck, trunk and arms. The most likely diagnosis is:

Group of answer choices

Nevi

Acanthosis Nigricans

Acrochordon

Cherry Angioma

 

Question 221 pts

What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma lesion?

Group of answer choices

Excisional biopsy

Punch biopsy

Shave biopsy

Wide excision

 

Question 231 pts

Jake is a 66 y/o male who has a history of psoriasis. Recently he has noticed that new psoriatic plaques are forming over areas of skin trauma that occurred when he fell and had deep tissue injuries. This phenomenon is known as:

Group of answer choices

Koebner Phenomenon

Ashpitz Sign

Guttate phenomenon

None of the above.

NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

 

Question 241 pts

An adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis with lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. Which is correct when prescribing a corticosteroid medication to treat this condition?

Group of answer choices

Initiate treatment with 0.1% triamcinolone acetonide.

Monitor the patient closely for systemic adverse effects during use.

Place an occlusive dressing over the medication after application.

Prescribe 0.05% fluocinonide to apply liberally.

 

Question 251 pts

A patient has sustained a human bite on the hand during a fist fight. Which is especially concerning with this type of bite injury?

Group of answer choices

Possible exposure to rabies virus

Potential septic arthritis or osteomyelitis

Sepsis from Capnocytophaga canimorsus infection

Transmission of human immunodeficiency virus

 

Question 261 pts

Audrey is a 19 y/o female who comes to the clinic because she is recently having a hard time hearing in class. The NP examines her ears and notes that she has otitis media. In such a condition the Rinne Test would show which of the following results:

Group of answer choices

BC > AC

AC > BC

AC = BC

None of the above

 

Question 271 pts

Aaron an 18 y/o male comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days. The NP diagnoses Aaron’s condition as:

Group of answer choices

Common cold

Influenza

Sinusitis

Mumps

 

Question 281 pts

Which is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups?

Group of answer choices

Bacteremic spread from remote infections

Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites

Local spread from the ethmoid sinus

Paranasal sinus inoculation

 

Question 291 pts

A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which medication will the primary health care provider prescribe?

Group of answer choices

Anthralin

Cyclosporine

Finasteride

Minoxidil

 

Question 301 pts

During an eye examination, the provider notes a red-light reflex in one eye but not the other. What is the significance of this finding? NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

Group of answer choices

Normal physiologic variant

Ocular disease requiring referral

Potential infection in the “red” eye

Potential vision loss in one eye

 

Question 311 pts

Bryce is a 17 y/o male who comes to the clinic with chief complaint of ear sudden onset of pain, popping noises, and muffled hearing. During the ear exam the NP notices that the TM has ruptured.

The first line treatment for Bryce would be:

Group of answer choices

Amoxicillin

Cefoxin

Augmentin

Levaquin

 

Question 321 pts

A patient comes to clinic with diffuse erythema in one eye without pain or history of trauma. The examination reveals a deep red, confluent hemorrhage in the conjunctiva of that eye. What is the most likely treatment for this condition?

Group of answer choices

Order lubricating drops or ointments.

Prescribe ophthalmic antibiotic drops.

Reassure the patient that this will resolve.

Refer to an ophthalmologist.

 

Question 331 pts

If the BC > AC then the person has a

Group of answer choices

Conductive hearing loss

Sensorineural hearing loss.

 

Question 341 pts

Audrey is a 19 y/o female who comes to the clinic because she is recently having a hard time hearing in class. The NP examines her ears and notes that she has otitis media.

In performing the Rinne test on Audrey the tuning fork would be placed on the:

Group of answer choices

Midline of forehead

Mastoid process

Temporal area of the head.

 

Question 351 pts

A patient experiencing chronically dry eyes reports having a foreign body sensation, burning, and itching. A Schirmer test is abnormal. What is the suspected cause of this patient’s symptoms based on this test finding?

Group of answer choices

Aqueous deficiency

Corneal abrasion

Evaporative disorder

Poor eyelid closure

 

Question 361 pts

A patient has a localized nodule on one eyelid which is warm, tender, and erythematous. On examination, the provider notes clear conjunctivae and no discharge. What is the recommended treatment? NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam

Group of answer choices

Referral to an ophthalmologist

Surgical incision and drainage

Systemic antibiotics

Warm compresses and massage of the lesion

 

Question 371 pts

Audrey is a 19 y/o female who comes to the clinic because she is recently having a hard time hearing in class. The NP examines her ears and notes that she has otitis media.

If the NP performed a Weber test on Audrey she would discover that there would be:

Group of answer choices

Lateralization to the good ear

Lateralization to the bad ear

Lateralization would be equal to either ear